Arsenal host French champions Paris Saint-Germain in the first leg of their Champions League semi-final on Tuesday night.
The Gunners have missed out on the Premier League title and are set to finish as top flight runners-up for the third consecutive season.
Mikel Arteta will therefore be desperate to see his side lift the Champions League, a trophy that the North London outfit have never won.
PSG will undoubtedly provide a tough test for the Gunners, though, with Luis Enrique’s side having been in fine form this term.
Off the pitch, it has emerged that Arsenal are considering a sensational move for a forward from one of their fiercest rivals.
As reported by TEAMtalk, the Gunners are contemplating a shock move for Chelsea attacker Christopher Nkunku.
The 27-year-old has endured a frustrating spell in London side joining Chelsea from RB Leipzig in 2023.
Nkunku has emerged as a surprise target for rivals Arsenal
The Frenchman struggled with injuries and was limited to just 14 appearances across all competitions during his debut season in England, and the player has struggled to establish himself in Enzo Maresca’s side this season.
Nkunku has scored 14 times in 42 games so far this season but his playing time has largely been limited to the cup competitions, with the forward having started just nine Premier League games.
It is claimed that Arsenal are monitoring the player’s situation as the summer transfer window approaches, with a view to potentially making an audacious move to sign him.
Nkunku is currently contracted to Chelsea until the end of the 2028/29 campaign, but the report suggests that the West London outfit could be willing to sell him for just £40 million this summer.
The player himself is said to be open to the prospect of a move away from Stamford Bridge, however he would want to guarantee more regular playing time at his next club.