This summer could be a significant one for Arsenal as those in charge of the club prepare Mikel Arteta’s squad for next season.
The Gunners finished as runners-up to Premier League champions Manchester City for the second consecutive season, despite beating Everton 2-1 on the final day.
Mikel Arteta had hoped to go one better than the 2022/23 campaign, when Arsenal topped the table for much of the campaign before eventually being leapfrogged by City.
They failed to do so, though, and the Citizens instead became the first team in English top flight history to win four consecutive titles.
Now, Arsenal appear to have been handed more bad news.
As per Sky Sports Germany’s Philipp Hinze, Arsenal target Benjamin Sesko’s release clause has increased as a result of his impressive performances.
Sesko has attracted interest from several Premier League clubs
The striker, who has also attracted interest from Manchester United and Chelsea, has been in fine form for German side RB Leipzig.
The 20-year-old Slovenian joined Leipzig from Red Bull Salzburg last summer, and has since scored 18 goals in 42 games for his new side including netting in each of his last seven Bundesliga matches.
It is claimed that Sesko’s displays have activated performance-related clauses that have increased his release clause from around £42 million to £55 million.
Arsenal, United and Chelsea had all been considering activating the young forward’s release clause, but it remains to be seen whether or not the increase in price will deter them from doing so.
Sesko is currently contracted to the German side until the end of the 2027/28 campaign, but it appears increasingly likely that he will depart Leipzig prior to that date.